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Blind and Visually Impaired Community

Full History - 2020 - 08 - 05 - ID#i4k064
3
Validity of psychosomatic visual impairment? (self.Blind)
submitted by AngryAsexual13
If someone were to be legally blind or visually impaired but it’s all psychosomatic, would it be wrong for them to utilize resources for visually impaired people?
PepperPhoenix 5 points 2y ago
Whether the impairment is organic or psychosomatic, they are still visually impaired. It's not like someone wants to be so mentally ill that they develop conversion syndrome and lose their vision. It will be just as difficult and traumatic for them as someone who has an organic disease or an accident.

Surely the only relevant qualifier should be "can they perform task x without his resource" if no, let them access the resource.

Once they receive assistance with their condition and have regained their sight, they can discharge themselves from services for the blind and donate any aids they may have. Until then, they still need a way to function.

Vision loss is vision loss regardless of cause.
thatawkwardcosplayer 4 points 2y ago
Either way, you're gonna trip probs on some stairs so may as well use a cane. Not like it's limited resources nd if it helps, great!
noaimpara 3 points 2y ago
If they can’t see, they need the help. The reason why they can’t see doesn’t really matter.
UpsideDownwardSpiral 1 points 2y ago
Call me pesamistic, but I'm waiting for someone to point out that "bUt hItLeR dId It!" as a way to disqualify the symptoms or experience.

I can only imagine that it's just as, if not more, terrifying to lose one's vision without there being a physical cause.
Mysterybanjo 1 points 2y ago
Either way, it sounds like they still need help. And i don’t think they would realise it’s psychosomatic so it’s probably not done out of malice.
[deleted] 1 points 2y ago
[deleted]
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